Could someone explain this apparent contradiction for me?
[q=Lair of the Wyrm Rulebook, page 7] If one or more Act I Quest cards are still in play immediately before playing the Interlude, the heroes must choose one of them to attempt (before proceeding to the Interlude). After completing this quest, all other available Act I Quest cards are discarded from the game without effect.
However the FAQ says:
Is this merely a straightforward case of FAQ overrides rulebook? If so, why was this not put in the errata section as it is not ambiguous as to what the original text meant, merely that the actual rule is completely different to as first written?
[q=Lair of the Wyrm Rulebook, page 7] If one or more Act I Quest cards are still in play immediately before playing the Interlude, the heroes must choose one of them to attempt (before proceeding to the Interlude). After completing this quest, all other available Act I Quest cards are discarded from the game without effect.
However the FAQ says:
Q: If any Act I Rumor card with an available quest is still in play, are the heroes and overlord forced to play it before the Interlude?
A: No, but that quest will no longer be an eligible choice after the Interlude has been completed.
A: No, but that quest will no longer be an eligible choice after the Interlude has been completed.
Is this merely a straightforward case of FAQ overrides rulebook? If so, why was this not put in the errata section as it is not ambiguous as to what the original text meant, merely that the actual rule is completely different to as first written?